UPSC Prelims 2023 General Studies (GS) Paper I - Answer Key & Detailed Solutions

With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.

2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.

3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1: Validity of Acts Done by the President of India in a Void Election

This statement is incorrect.
According to Article 71(2) of the Constitution of India, if the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts performed by that person in the exercise of their presidential powers and duties before the court’s decision shall not be invalidated.
Only the acts performed by the President after the date of the Supreme Court’s decision would become invalid.

Statement 2: Postponement of Elections for the President of India

This statement is incorrect.
According to Article 62 of the Constitution of India, the election of the President must adhere to the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, with voting conducted through secret ballot.
The Constitution does not allow for the postponement of the election based on the dissolution of Legislative Assemblies or pending elections.

Statement 3: Time Limits for the President’s Assent to a Bill

This statement is incorrect.
The Constitution of India does not specify any time limits within which the President must declare their assent to a Bill.
Article 111 of the Constitution states that when a Bill is presented to the President for assent, they can either assent to the Bill or withhold their assent.
However, there are no prescribed time limits for the President to provide their assent.

Reflection in IAS EXPRESS

Source: Indian Polity Mindmap Notes > President

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1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.

2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.

3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1: Lok Sabha’s Authority over the Finance Bill

This statement is correct.
When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it has the authority to amend or reject the Bill.
If the Rajya Sabha does not return the Bill within 14 days, it is considered passed by both Houses.

Statement 2: Lok Sabha’s Authority over Money Bill

This statement is correct.
When the Lok Sabha transmits a Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the Bill. It can only make recommendations.
The Rajya Sabha must return the Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, and if it fails to do so, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses.

Statement 3: Joint Sitting for Finance Bill and Money Bill Disagreement

This statement is correct.
In the case of a disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, a joint sitting becomes necessary only for the Finance Bill, not for a Money Bill.

Reflection in IAS EXPRESS

Source: Indian Polity Mindmap Notes > Parliament

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Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’

1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest

2. hunting is not allowed in such area

3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce

4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

The correct answer is (c), only three.

Community reserves in India are specially designated protected zones. They typically serve as a transitional or connection area between recognized national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and other reserved and protected forests in the country.

Statement 1 is correct: According to Section 33 of the WildLife Protection Act (WLPA), when an area is declared as a community reserve by the central government, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state assumes control over it. His or her approval is mandatory for any decisions concerning the area.

Statement 2 is also correct: Once a forest area is designated as a community reserve, it becomes a no-hunting zone. Hunting within these reserves is strictly prohibited.

Regarding Statements 3 and 4: It’s accurate that individuals in community reserves are permitted to gather non-timber forest products. However, it is incorrect to state that they can engage in traditional farming activities like shifting (jhum) cultivation within these reserves. This is prohibited in community reserves. Therefore, Statement 3 is correct and Statement 4 is wrong.

Hence, only three statements are correct.

With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.

2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.

3. The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Statement 1: Notification of Scheduled Areas through Presidential Order

This statement is correct.
The notification of an area as a Scheduled Area within a State is done through a Presidential Order.
The President has the authority to declare certain areas as Scheduled Areas based on the criteria specified in the Constitution.

Statement 2: Administrative Units in Scheduled Areas

This statement is correct.
In a Scheduled Area, the administrative units are organized from the district level to the cluster of villages in the Block.
The District is the largest administrative unit, and within the District, there are smaller administrative units such as Blocks and Clusters of villages.

Statement 3: Annual Reports on Scheduled Areas

This statement is incorrect.
It is the Governor of the concerned State who is responsible for submitting annual reports to the President of India, not the Chief Ministers.
The Governor acts as the representative of the President in the State and is responsible for reporting on the administration and development activities in the Scheduled Areas to the President through the Union Home Ministry.

Reflection in IAS EXPRESS

Source: Indian Polity Mindmap Notes > 5th & 6th Schedule

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Statement-I:
The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II :
Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

To answer this question, let’s first understand the meaning of Article 16(4) and Article 335 of the Constitution of India.

Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India allows the state to make provisions for the reservation of appointments or posts in favor of any backward class of citizens, which, in the opinion of the state, is not adequately represented in the services under the state.

Article 335 of the Constitution of India states that the claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State.

Now, let’s analyze the given statements:

Statement-1 is correct. The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration. This is because Article 335 emphasizes the need to maintain efficiency in administration while considering the claims of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for appointments to services and posts.

Statement-II is incorrect. Article 335 does not explicitly define the term “efficiency of administration.” Instead, it emphasizes the need to maintain efficiency in administration while considering the claims of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for appointments to services and posts.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Inputs from Prelims Sureshots >> Landmark Cases that Shaped India

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement-I:
India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.
Statement-II:
Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

Statement-I is correct, as India does have uranium deposits but still depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Coal accounts for nearly 80% of the total electricity generated in India. [1]

Statement-II is incorrect, as uranium enriched to at least 60% is not required for the production of electricity. In fact, uranium enriched to around 3-5% is used as fuel for light water nuclear reactors. [2]

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Reflection in IAS EXPRESS

Source: Current Affairs In-depths > Coal Sector in India

Source: Current Affairs In-depths > Nuclear Power Generation in India

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(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Statement-1 is correct. Marsupials are mammals that carry their young in a pouch. They are found in Australia, New Guinea, and South America. There are no marsupials naturally found in India.

Statement-2 is incorrect. Marsupials can thrive in a variety of habitats, including forests, grasslands, and deserts. They can also live in areas with predators. For example, the opossum is a marsupial that is found in North America. It is a common prey animal for coyotes, foxes, and hawks. However, the opossum has a number of adaptations that help it to survive in the wild, including a strong sense of smell, sharp claws, and a thick coat of fur.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c). Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is incorrect.

Reflection in IAS EXPRESS

Source: Environment Mindmap Notes > Animal Diversity of India

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Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) The United Nations Environment Programme
(c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under the auspices of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Therefore, the correct answer is (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature. Additionally, the ISSG develops and manages the Global Invasive Species Database.

Reflection in IAS EXPRESS

From Prelims Sureshots >> International Organisations

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Consider the following fauna:1. Lion-tailed Macaque2. Malabar Civet3. Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

The correct answer is (b) Only two.

Lion-tailed Macaques are diurnal animals, meaning they are most active during the day.
Malabar Civets are nocturnal animals, meaning they are most active at night.
Sambar Deer are crepuscular animals, meaning they are most active at dawn and dusk.

Therefore, only two of the three animals listed are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset.

Reflection in IAS EXPRESS

Source: Prelims Sureshots >> Environment >> Threatened Species in India

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Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

(a) Butterflies
(b) Dragonflies
(c) Honeybees
(d) Wasps

The correct answer is (c) Honeybees.

Honeybees perform a waggle dance to communicate the location of a good source of food (nectar rich flowers), or water, and also to describe the whereabouts of the site of a potential new home for a swarming bee colony.

The waggle dance is a sophisticated form of spatial referential communication. The dancer repeatedly circles in a figure-eight pattern centered around a waggle run in which the bee waggles its abdomen as it moves forward. Longer waggle runs communicate greater distances (more retinal optical flow), and the waggle direction angle communicates resource direction.

The waggle dance is a fascinating example of how animals can communicate complex information with each other. It is also a reminder of the importance of bees in our ecosystem.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels :

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
2. Some mushrooms have psycho- active properties.
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
4. Some mushrooms have biolumi- nescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

The correct answer is (d) All four.

Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. For example, the shiitake mushroom is known to boost the immune system and fight cancer.
Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties. For example, the psilocybin mushroom contains the psychoactive compound psilocybin, which can cause hallucinations and other altered states of consciousness.
Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. For example, the oyster mushroom contains the compound pleuromutilin, which is toxic to insects.
Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. For example, the jack-o’-lantern mushroom contains the compound luciferin, which emits light when it reacts with oxygen.

Therefore, all four of the statements are correct.

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
3. They are omnivorous.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Explanation:

Indian squirrels, like many squirrel species, are primarily arboreal creatures, which means they live in trees. They build nests, often called dreys, in trees, not burrows in the ground. This statement is incorrect.
Squirrels do have a behavior known as “caching” where they store their food materials like nuts and seeds. Some species, like the Eastern Gray Squirrel, do cache food in the ground. However, not all Indian squirrels display this behavior. For instance, Indian giant squirrels, have been observed to not store food, relying on the abundant food in their habitat. So, this statement is partly correct but doesn’t apply to all Indian squirrels.
Indian squirrels, like most squirrels, are primarily herbivorous, meaning their diet consists mainly of a wide variety of plants, including nuts, seeds, conifer cones, fruits, fungi, and green vegetation. However, they also eat insects and other small animals when the opportunity arises, so they could be considered omnivorous in a broad sense. This statement is correct.

So, only one statement is fully correct. Hence, the answer is: (a) Only one

Inputs from Prelims Sureshots >> Threatened Species and Scheduled Animals of WPA

Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.

2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.

3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.

How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

The correct answer is (c) All three.

Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. For example, the bacterium Pyrolobus fumarii can grow at temperatures up to 113 °C (235 °F).
Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water. For example, the bacterium Psychrobacter cryohalolentis can grow at temperatures as low as -15 °C (5 °F).
Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3. For example, the bacterium Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans can grow at pH values as low as 0.5.

Therefore, all three of the statements are correct.

Inputs from Environment Mindmap Notes, Current Affairs Notes and Internet

(a) Fishing cat
(b) Orangutan
(c) Otter
(d) Sloth bear

The correct answer is (b) Orangutan.

Orangutans are known to use sticks to extract insects from holes in trees. They will often break off a small branch and use it to probe the hole, then lick off any insects that are stuck to the stick. This is an example of tool use, which is a relatively rare behavior in the animal kingdom.

Orangutans are also known to use leaves to wipe their faces and to use sticks to scratch their backs. They are highly intelligent animals and are capable of learning new behaviors through observation and imitation.

Inputs from Environment Mindmap Notes

Consider the following: 1. Aerosols 2. Foam agents 3. Fire retardants 4. Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

The correct answer is (d) All four.

Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are man-made chemicals that are used in a variety of products, including aerosols, foam agents, fire retardants, and lubricants. HFCs are greenhouse gases, and their use is regulated by the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer.

Aerosols: HFCs are used as propellants in aerosol cans. They are also used as solvents in aerosol products, such as hairspray and deodorant.
Foam agents: HFCs are used to make foams, such as polyurethane foam and polystyrene foam. Foams are used in a variety of products, including insulation, packaging, and furniture.
Fire retardants: HFCs are used to make fire retardants, which are chemicals that are used to slow down or stop the spread of fire. Fire retardants are used in a variety of products, including clothing, furniture, and construction materials.
Lubricants: HFCs are used to make lubricants, which are substances that are used to reduce friction and wear. Lubricants are used in a variety of products, including engines, gears, and bearings.

HFCs are also used in a variety of other products, including air conditioners, refrigerators, and freezers.

Inputs from Environment Mindmap Notes

Consider the following statements: 1. Jhelum River River passes through Wular Lake. 2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. 3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.

How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Explanation:

The Jhelum River does pass through Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir, India. This is the largest freshwater lake in India. The river enters the lake from the south and leaves it from the north. So, this statement is correct.
Kolleru Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India, located in Andhra Pradesh. It is fed by the waters of the Budameru and Tammileru rivers. However, it is not directly fed by the Krishna River. So, this statement is incorrect.
Kanwar Lake is one of Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lakes, formed by the meandering of the Gandak River in Bihar, India. So, this statement is correct.

So, two of the statements are correct. The answer is: (b) Only two

Inputs from Prelims Sureshots >> Geography >> India – Minerals, Rivers, Lakes, Glaciers, Mountains, etc.

Consider the following pairs: 1. Kamarajar Port : First major port in India registered as a company 2. Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India 3. Visakhapatnam: Largest container port in India

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs

Explanation:

Let’s verify each pair:

Kamarajar Port: This port, also known as Ennore Port, is located in the state of Tamil Nadu. It is indeed the first port in India which was registered as a company. This pair is correctly matched.
Mundra Port: Located in the state of Gujarat, Mundra Port is the largest private port in India. It’s owned by Adani Ports & SEZ Ltd. This pair is also correctly matched.
Visakhapatnam: Located in the state of Andhra Pradesh, Visakhapatnam is a significant port. However, as of 2021, it is not the largest container port in India. The Jawaharlal Nehru Port (also known as Nhava Sheva), located in Maharashtra, holds that distinction. So, this pair is not correctly matched.

Hence, two pairs are correctly matched.

The answer is: (b) Only two pairs

Inputs from Prelims Sureshots >> Geography

Consider the following trees: 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) 2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) 3. Teak (Tectona grandis)

How many of the above are deciduous trees?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Explanation:

Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus): The jackfruit tree is a species of tree in the fig, mulberry, and breadfruit family. It’s a tropical evergreen tree, meaning it does not lose its leaves seasonally. So, it is not deciduous.
Mahua (Madhuca indica): The Mahua tree is a tropical deciduous tree. This means it sheds its leaves during certain seasons, typically in the dry season.
Teak (Tectona grandis): The teak tree is a tropical hardwood tree species in the family Lamiaceae. It is also deciduous and loses its leaves in the dry season.

So, two out of the three trees listed are deciduous.

The answer is: (b) Only two

Inputs from Prelims Sureshots >> Geography

Consider the follow statements: 1. India has more arable area than China. 2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. 3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Explanation:

1. India has more arable area than China.

India has a total arable land area of 1,656,780 square kilometers, while China has a total arable land area of 1,084,461 square kilometers. (source)
Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.

India has 57 million hectares of irrigated land, whereas China has 54 million hectares. (source)
Therefore, Statement 2 is also correct.

3.The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.

India had a lower productivity level in terms of tonne per hectare for both paddy and wheat compared to China. India’s productivity for paddy was 3.1 tonne/hectare, while China’s was 6.5 tonne/hectare. Similarly, India’s productivity for wheat was 2.9 tonne/hectare, while China’s was 4.7 tonne/hectare. (Source)
Even with much lesser land under cultivation, China produces agricultural output valued at $1,367 billion—more than three times that of India’s $407 billion. (Source)
Therefore, the statement 3 is not correct.

Hence, only two statements are correct.

The answer is: (b) Only two.

Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?

(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves

(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans

(d) Rann of Kutch

The correct answer is (d), Rann of Kutch. The Rann of Kutch is a large area of salt marshes that span the border between India and Pakistan. It is located mostly in the Kutch district of the Indian state of Gujarat, with a minor portion extending into the Sindh province of Pakistan. It is divided into the Great Rann and Little Rann.

The Rann of Kutch was formed by the repeated fall in sea level over the years. The area was once a shallow part of the Arabian Sea, but the sea level fell due to geological uplift and the area became a marshy salt desert. The Rann of Kutch is now a vast expanse of salt flats, mudflats, and wetlands. It is home to a variety of wildlife, including flamingos, wild asses, and Indian wolves.

The Rann of Kutch is a popular tourist destination. Visitors can take camel safaris, go birdwatching, or visit the many temples and forts in the area. The Rann of Kutch is also home to the annual Rann Utsav festival, which is a celebration of the culture and traditions of the region.

Inputs from Geography Mindmap Notes & Internet

Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?

(a) Aluminium
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Titanium

The correct answer is (d), titanium. Ilmenite and rutile are both titanium-bearing minerals. Ilmenite is an iron titanium oxide with the chemical formula FeTiO3, while rutile is a titanium dioxide with the chemical formula TiO2. Both minerals are found in abundance in certain coastal tracts of India, such as the beaches of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

Titanium is a strong, lightweight metal that is used in a variety of applications, including aerospace, automotive, and medical industries. It is also used in the production of titanium dioxide, a white pigment that is used in paints, plastics, and other products.

India is one of the world’s leading producers of titanium minerals. In 2019, India produced 1.1 million metric tons of ilmenite and 0.5 million metric tons of rutile. As per NMI, the total resources of titanium minerals in India are estimated at about 549.49 million tonnes.

The development of the titanium industry in India is expected to create new jobs and boost the country’s economy. The industry is also expected to help India reduce its dependence on imports of titanium minerals.

Inputs from Geography Mindmap Notes and Internet

About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by

(a) Argentina
(b) Botswana
(c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo
(d) Kazakhstan

The correct answer is (c), the Democratic Republic of the Congo. The DRC is the world’s largest producer of cobalt, accounting for about 70% of global production. Cobalt is a key ingredient in the batteries that power electric vehicles, and demand for the metal is expected to grow as the EV market expands.

The DRC’s cobalt mining industry is plagued by human rights abuses, including child labor and unsafe working conditions. There have also been reports of environmental damage caused by cobalt mining. Some companies have taken steps to address these issues, but more needs to be done to ensure that cobalt is mined responsibly.

The DRC is a resource-rich country, but it is also one of the poorest countries in the world. The majority of the population lives below the poverty line, and the country has a long history of political instability and conflict. The DRC’s cobalt mining industry has the potential to bring economic development to the country, but it is important that the industry is developed in a way that benefits all Congolese people.

Inputs from Geography Mindmap Notes & Current Affairs Notes

Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

(a) Cameroon
(b) Nigeria
(c) South Sudan
(d) Uganda

The correct answer is (a) Cameroon.

The Congo Basin is a sedimentary basin of the Congo River. It is located in Central Africa, in a region known as west equatorial Africa. The Congo Basin region is sometimes known simply as the Congo. It contains some of the largest tropical rainforests in the world and is an important source of water used in agriculture and energy generation.

The Congo Basin spans across six countries—Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.

Nigeria, South Sudan, and Uganda are not part of the Congo Basin.

Inputs from Prelims Sureshots >> Geography

Consider the following statements: 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. 2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range. 3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.

How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Explanation:

Amakantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
This statement is incorrect. Amarkantak is the meeting point of the Vindhya and the Satpura Ranges, with the Maikal Hills being the fulcrum[1].
Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
This statement is incorrect. Biligirirangan Hills are located in south-western Karnataka, at its border with Tamil Nadu, and are part of the Eastern Ghats[2].
Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.
This statement is incorrect. Seshachalam Hills are hilly ranges part of the Eastern Ghats in southern Andhra Pradesh state, in southeastern India[3].

Hence, the correct answer is:
[D] None

Reflection in IAS EXPRESS

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With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements:

1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

The correct answer is (d).

The East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Porbandar (Gujarat) to Silchar (Assam).

The Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Mae Sot in Thailand via Myanmar.

The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Kolkata in West Bengal with Kunming in China.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes and Internet

Statement-I:

Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.

Statement-II :

InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Recon- struction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

Income from InvITs is taxable as per the investor’s slab rate

Statement 1 is incorrect: Dividend and interest income from InvITs is completely taxable as per the slab rate of the investor.

Amendments to support InvITs and REITs

Statement 2 is correct: In a statement on February 11, 2021, the Finance Ministry announced its intention to introduce amendments to several acts to facilitate funding for the infrastructure and real estate sectors.
The amendments will be made to the following acts:
- Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act (SCRA) 1956
- Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act 2002
- Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act (‘Recovery of Debts Act’) 1993
The purpose of these amendments is to enable infrastructure investment trusts (InvITs) and real estate investment trusts (REITs) to easily access debt financing from investors, including foreign portfolio investors (FPIs).

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes and Internet

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

Statement-I:
In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.

Statement-II:

Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

The correct answer is (a).

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Statement-I states that in the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. This is true. Many central banks, including the US Federal Reserve, the Bank of England, and the European Central Bank, have raised interest rates in an effort to combat rising inflation.

Statement-II states that Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. This is also true. Monetary policy is the use of interest rates and other tools to control the amount of money in circulation. By raising interest rates, central banks can make it more expensive for businesses and consumers to borrow money, which can help to slow down the economy and reduce inflation.

Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because it explains why central banks have been raising interest rates. Central banks believe that by raising interest rates, they can slow down the economy and reduce inflation.

Inputs from Indian Economy Mindmap Notes and Current Affairs Notes

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

The correct answer is (a).

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Statement-I states that carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. This is because carbon markets can help to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by providing a financial incentive for businesses and individuals to reduce their emissions.

Statement-II states that carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. This is because businesses that emit greenhouse gases are required to purchase carbon credits, which are then sold to the State.

However, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. The reason why carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change is because they can help to reduce greenhouse gas emissions. The fact that carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State is a secondary benefit.

In addition to reducing greenhouse gas emissions, carbon markets can also help to promote innovation in clean technologies. This is because businesses that are able to reduce their emissions can sell their carbon credits for a profit. This profit can then be used to invest in new clean technologies.

Overall, carbon markets are a promising tool in the fight against climate change. They can help to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, promote innovation in clean technologies, and transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes & Internet

Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization?

(a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’
(b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems
(c) Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
(d) Regulating the functions of Non- banking Financial Institutions

The correct answer is (a).

Sterilization is a monetary action used by central banks to offset the effect of inflows and outflows of capital on the money supply. In India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducts open market operations (OMOs) to sterilize the impact of capital inflows. OMOs involve the buying and selling of government securities in the open market. When the RBI buys government securities, it injects liquidity into the economy. When the RBI sells government securities, it withdraws liquidity from the economy.

The RBI also uses other tools to sterilize the impact of capital inflows, such as the cash reserve ratio (CRR) and the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR). The CRR is the percentage of deposits that banks are required to hold with the RBI. The SLR is the percentage of deposits that banks are required to invest in government securities. By increasing the CRR or the SLR, the RBI can withdraw liquidity from the economy.

The RBI’s sterilization operations are aimed at maintaining price stability and financial stability. By sterilizing the impact of capital inflows, the RBI can prevent the money supply from growing too rapidly, which could lead to inflation. The RBI’s sterilization operations also help to stabilize the exchange rate.

Inputs from Indian Economy Mindmap Notes and Internet

Consider the following markets:

1. Government Bond Market
2. Call Money Market
3. Treasury Bill Market
4. Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Explanation:

In the given list:

The Government Bond Market refers to a sector of the capital markets where investors can trade in government-issued securities. These are usually long-term investments, as they tend to have maturities that extend beyond one year.
The Call Money Market, on the other hand, is a segment of the money market. It deals with short-term borrowing and lending, typically overnight transactions. It is not a part of the capital markets because capital markets handle long-term investments.
The Treasury Bill Market is also a segment of the money market. Treasury bills are short-term securities issued by a government to finance its short-term expenditure. These instruments typically have maturities of less than one year, so they do not fall under the category of capital markets.
The Stock Market is a central component of the capital markets. It offers a platform for the issuance and trading of equity (or shares), which represent ownership in a company. Such instruments are generally long-term in nature.

From the above analysis, it is clear that among the given markets, only the Government Bond Market and the Stock Market belong to the capital markets. Hence, the correct answer is (b) Only two.

Inputs from Indian Economy Mindmap Notes

Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?

(a) Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce

(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations

(c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers

(d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production

Explanation:

The concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’ is best described by option (b). It is a collective action model that allows small farmers to benefit from achieving economies of scale by organizing themselves into groups and synchronizing and harmonizing selected operations.

The other options are not correct. Option (a) is about resettlement of refugees. Option (c) is about corporate farming. Option (d) is about contract farming.

Here are some more details about the Small Farmer Large Field model:

Small farmers in an area organize themselves into groups.
The groups agree to synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations.
This could include things like planting, harvesting, and marketing.
By working together, the farmers can achieve economies of scale.
This means that they can produce more crops with less cost.
The farmers can also benefit from collective bargaining power.
This means that they can negotiate better prices for their crops.

The Small Farmer Large Field model has been successful in many countries. It has helped to improve the livelihoods of small farmers and increase food production.

Consider the investments in the following assets:

1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

The correct answer is (c), all three.

Explanation:

The Government of India does provide Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds. The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is the price at which the government buys crops from farmers. It is set by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which is an advisory body to the government. The MSP for niger seeds is Rs. 5,230 per quintal for the 2022-23 crop year.

Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Kharif crops are those that are sown in the monsoon season (June-September) and harvested in the winter season (October-March). Niger is a short-duration crop that takes about 90-100 days to mature. It is grown in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka.

Some tribal people in India do use niger seed oil for cooking. Niger seed oil is a good source of polyunsaturated fatty acids, which are beneficial for health. It is also a good source of vitamin E. Niger seed oil is used in cooking in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes & Internet

1. Brand recognition
2. Inventory
3. Intellectual property
4. Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

The correct answer is (c), only three.

Explanation:

Intangible investments are investments in assets that do not have a physical form. This includes things like brand recognition, intellectual property, and mailing lists of clients. Inventory is a tangible asset, as it is a physical good that can be seen and touched.

Brand recognition is an intangible asset because it is a measure of how well-known and respected a company’s brand is. This can be difficult to quantify, but it can be a valuable asset for a company.

Intellectual property is an intangible asset because it is a creation of the mind. This can include things like patents, trademarks, and copyrights. Intellectual property can be a valuable asset for a company because it can give the company a competitive advantage.

A mailing list of clients is an intangible asset because it is a list of potential customers. This can be a valuable asset for a company because it can be used to market to these customers.

Inventory is a tangible asset because it is a physical good that can be seen and touched. This includes things like raw materials, work-in-progress, and finished goods. Inventory can be a valuable asset for a company because it can be used to generate sales.

Inputs from Indian Economy Mindmap Notes & Internet

Consider the following:

1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

The correct answer is (c), Only four.

Explanation:

The 15th Finance Commission in India used multiple criteria for horizontal tax devolution. These criteria included population (1971 and 2011 data), area, forest and ecology, income distance, and demographic performance.

From the list:

Demographic performance – This was included as a criterion by the Fifteenth Finance Commission.
Forest and ecology – This was also included as a criterion by the Fifteenth Finance Commission.
Governance reforms – Governance reform was not a criterion used by the Fifteenth Finance Commission for horizontal tax devolution.
Stable government – Stable government was not a criterion used by the Fifteenth Finance Commission for horizontal tax devolution.
Tax and fiscal efforts – This was also included as a criterion by the Fifteenth Finance Commission.

So, of the listed criteria, three — demographic performance, forest and ecology, and tax and fiscal efforts — were used by the Fifteenth Finance Commission in addition to population, area, and income distance.

Therefore, the answer is (b) Only three.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes & Internet

Consider the following infrastructure sectors:

1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Health care
4. Renewable energy

On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

The correct answer is (d), all four.

Explanation:

UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focuses on all four infrastructure sectors: affordable housing, mass rapid transport, health care, and renewable energy.

The S3i initiative was launched in 2018 to address the infrastructure gap in developing countries. The initiative aims to mobilize private sector investment in infrastructure projects that are sustainable and have a positive impact on the environment and society.

The S3i initiative has invested in a number of projects in developing countries, including:

A $100 million investment in a renewable energy project in India
A $50 million investment in a affordable housing project in Africa
A $25 million investment in a mass rapid transport project in Asia
A $10 million investment in a health care project in Latin America

The S3i initiative is a unique and innovative approach to infrastructure investment. It is the first initiative of its kind to focus on sustainable and impact-oriented infrastructure projects. The initiative has the potential to make a significant contribution to the development of developing countries.

However, it is important to note that the S3i initiative has been phased out by UNOPS in February 2023 following a series of management failures.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes & Internet

With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two statements are correct.

Explanation

Based on the statements given:

Home Guards are typically not raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government, but are usually raised under state acts and rules. Each state in India has its own set of rules and guidelines for raising Home Guards.
The statement that the role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintaining internal security is accurate. Their main function is to serve as a reserve force to handle emergencies and disasters.
The statement that the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states to prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas is also accurate. This specialized wing of Home Guards has been deployed in border areas of some states, where their role is primarily to assist the police and other security agencies in guarding the border.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is not. Based on this evaluation, the answer is (b) Only two.

Reflection in IAS EXPRESS

From Prelims Sureshots >> Government Agencies

[collapse]

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Action The Act under which it is covered
1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms: The Official Secrets Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others: The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

The Indian Official Secrets Act, 1923

Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Indian Official Secrets Act, 1923, applies to specific individuals and situations. It is applicable to government officials, government servants, citizens accused of sedition, threatening the integrity of the nation, spying, unlawful use of government uniform, causing interventions in the armed forces, and similar offenses.

Prohibited place and police officer interference

Pair 2 is incorrect: The statement regarding the Official Secrets Act, 1923, is incorrect. It suggests that under this act, no person in the vicinity of any prohibited place shall obstruct, knowingly mislead, or otherwise interfere with or impede any police officer or any member. This statement is not accurate.

Amendments to decrease firearms and increase penalties

Pair 3 is correctly matched: The statement is accurate. The act mentioned seeks to reduce the number of licensed firearms allowed per person and enhance penalties for specific offenses under the Act.

Regions often mentioned in news Reason for being in news
1. North Kivu and Ituri: War between Armenia and Azerbaijan
2. Nagorno-Karabakh: Insurgency in Mozambique
3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: Dispute between Israel and Lebanon
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

The answer is (d). None of the above pairs are correctly matched.

North Kivu and Ituri are provinces in the Democratic Republic of the Congo that have been in the news because of the ongoing conflict there.
Nagorno-Karabakh is a disputed region between Armenia and Azerbaijan that has been in the news because of the 2020 Nagorno-Karabakh war.
Kherson and Zaporizhzhia are cities in Ukraine that have been in the news because of the 2022 Russian invasion of Ukraine.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes

Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:

Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement-II: The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

The correct answer is (b).

Explanation

Statement-I is correct. Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States, including Egypt, Jordan, Bahrain, the United Arab Emirates, Sudan, and Morocco.

Statement-II is also correct. The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ was a proposal for peace between Israel and the Arab world that was put forward by Saudi Arabia in 2002. The initiative called for full normalization of relations between Israel and all Arab states in exchange for Israel’s full withdrawal from the occupied territories and a just solution to the Palestinian refugee problem.

While Statement-II is correct, it is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. The establishment of diplomatic relations between Israel and some Arab States was not a direct result of the ‘Arab Peace Initiative’. However, the initiative did help to create a more favorable environment for normalization of relations between Israel and the Arab world.

In addition to the countries mentioned above, Israel has also established unofficial ties with some other Arab States, such as Oman and Qatar. These ties are often kept secret due to the sensitivity of the issue of normalization of relations between Israel and the Arab world.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes and Internet

1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years
2. Arjuna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
3. Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Only two pairs are correctly matched.

Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: For the most outstanding performance by a sportsperson over a period of four years.
Dronacharya Award: To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams.

Incorrectly matched pairs

Arjuna Award: The Arjuna Award is given to sportspersons for their outstanding performance in sports. It is not specifically for lifetime achievement, but rather for excellence in their respective fields.
Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar: to encourage and involve corporates, voluntary organizations, sports control boards, etc., in sports promotion and development.

Inputs from Prelims Sureshots >> Schemes & Welfare Programmes

Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022

1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named Thambi’.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

The correct answer is (b). Only two statements are correct.

The 44th Chess Olympiad was held in Chennai, India from 28 July to 10 August 2022. It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India.
The official mascot of the 44th Chess Olympiad was named Thambi. Thambi is a Tamil word meaning “younger brother”.
The winning team in the women’s section will receive the “Vera Menchik Cup”
The winning team in the open section will receive the “Hamilton-Russell Cup”

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes >> Newsbits >> July 2022

In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?

Area of conflict mentioned in news Country where it is located
1. Donbas : Syria
2. Kachin : Ethiopia
3. Tigray : North Yemen
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

The correct answer is (d). None of the pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation:

Donbas: Syria According to the information available, Donbas is not located in Syria. Donbas refers to a region in eastern Ukraine, particularly the areas of Donetsk and Luhansk, where there has been ongoing conflict between Ukrainian government forces and separatist groups. Therefore, this pair is not correctly matched.
Kachin: Ethiopia Kachin is a region located in Myanmar (Burma), not Ethiopia. The Kachin State is situated in the northern part of Myanmar and is known for its ethnic Kachin population. There have been conflicts and tensions between the Kachin Independence Army and the Myanmar government. Hence, this pair is also not correctly matched.
Tigray: North Yemen Tigray is indeed a region, and it is located in Ethiopia, not North Yemen. The Tigray Region in northern Ethiopia has been in the news due to a recent conflict that started in late 2020 between the regional government of Tigray and the Ethiopian federal government. Therefore, this pair is not correctly matched.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes

(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases
(c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
(d) Successful coups

The correct answer is (d). All four countries have experienced successful coups in recent years.

Chad: In April 2021, President Idriss Déby was killed while leading troops against rebels in the north of the country. His son, Mahamat Idriss Déby, took over as president and declared a transitional military council.
Guinea: In September 2021, President Alpha Condé was overthrown in a coup led by Colonel Mamady Doumbouya. Doumbouya declared himself president and formed a transitional government.
Mali: In August 2020, President Ibrahim Boubacar Keïta was overthrown in a coup led by Colonel Assimi Goïta. Goïta declared himself president and formed a transitional government.
Sudan: In April 2019, President Omar al-Bashir was overthrown in a coup led by General Abdel Fattah al-Burhan. Al-Burhan declared himself president and formed a transitional government.

The coups in Chad, Guinea, Mali, and Sudan have all been met with international condemnation. The African Union has suspended all four countries from membership. The United Nations has also imposed sanctions on some of the coup leaders.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes

Consider the following heavy industries:

1. Fertilizer plants
2. Oil refineries
3. Steel plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

The correct answer is (c). Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing all three industries.

Green hydrogen is produced by using renewable energy to split water into hydrogen and oxygen. This process does not emit any greenhouse gases. Green hydrogen can be used as a fuel in place of fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and natural gas. This can help to reduce emissions from heavy industries, such as fertilizer plants, oil refineries, and steel plants.
Fertilizer plants use a lot of energy to produce ammonia, which is a key ingredient in fertilizers. Green hydrogen can be used to produce ammonia without emitting any greenhouse gases. This can help to reduce the carbon footprint of fertilizer production.
Oil refineries use a lot of energy to heat crude oil and convert it into gasoline, diesel, and other products. Green hydrogen can be used to heat crude oil without emitting any greenhouse gases. This can help to reduce the carbon footprint of oil refining.
Steel plants use a lot of energy to melt iron ore and convert it into steel. Green hydrogen can be used to melt iron ore without emitting any greenhouse gases. This can help to reduce the carbon footprint of steel production.
Green hydrogen is a promising technology that can help to decarbonize heavy industries. It is important to continue to develop this technology and to make it more affordable so that it can be widely adopted.

Inputs from IAS EXPRESS Current Affairs Notes

Consider the following statements about G-20:

1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.
2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is (c), both 1 and 2.

The G20 was established in 1999 as a forum for finance ministers and central bank governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. The G20’s membership includes 19 countries and the European Union.
India assumed the G20 presidency on December 1, 2022. India’s G20 priorities include:
- Digital public infrastructure
- Sustainable energy transitions
- Global health architecture
- Digital transformations
- Sustainable food systems
- Inclusive growth
- Climate change mitigation and adaptation
- International financial architecture
- Anti-corruption
- Terrorism and transnational crime
- Migration and refugees

Inputs from IAS EXPRESS Current Affairs Notes

With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with

(a) archaeological excavations
(b) establishment of English Press in Colonial India
(c) establishment of Churches in Princely States
(d) construction of railways in Colonial India

Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were all archaeological surveyors in India. They were responsible for the excavation and preservation of many ancient Indian sites.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Inputs from IAS EXPRESS's History (Optional) Mindmap Notes

Site : Well known for
1. Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine
2. Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine
3. Sittanavasal : Jain cave shrine
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

The correct answer is (c).

Besnagar was probably an important ancient temples and pilgrimage site. Two major archaeological excavations in the 20th-century have revealed the pillar to be a part of an ancient Vasudeva temple site.
Bhaja is a village in the Pune district of Maharashtra, India. It is known for the Bhaja Caves, a group of 22 rock-cut caves dating from the 2nd century BCE to the 2nd century CE. The caves are a Buddhist shrine.
Sittanavasal is a village in the Pudukkottai district of Tamil Nadu, India. It is known for the Sittanavasal Caves, a group of 11 rock-cut caves dating from the 2nd century BCE to the 8th century CE. The caves are a Jain shrine.
Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched.

Inputs from IAS EXPRESS's Ancient India Mindmap notes

Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:

Statement-1: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.

Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same
day.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

Every year on August 7, India observes National Handloom Day as a way to honor the Swadeshi Movement, establishing a significant link between the two.

Inputs from IAS EXPRESS Current Affairs Notes

Statement-1: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
Statement-II : The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

The standard sizes of the Indian National Flag are 6300 x 4200, 3600 x 2400, 2700 x 1800, 1800 x 1200, 1350 x 900, 900 x 600, 450 x 300, 225 x 150 and 150 x 100 (all sizes in mm). 600 mm x 400 mm is not listed as a standard size, making Statement-I incorrect.

Statement-II is correct. The Flag Code of India, 2002 specifies that the ratio of the length to the height (width) of the flag shall be 3:2.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes >> July 2022

Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:

Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

Based on the given statements:
- Statement-I: Constitution Day, also known as Samvidhan Divas, is celebrated in India on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India by the Constituent Assembly. This day promotes awareness of the Indian Constitution and its architect, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, among citizens. This statement is correct.
- Statement-II: However, on 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India did not set up a Drafting Committee. The Drafting Committee, chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, was already set up much earlier, in 1947. On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly adopted the draft constitution. This statement is therefore incorrect.
Based on this analysis, the correct answer is (c) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.

Statement-II : Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

Based on the given statements:

Statement-I: Switzerland is indeed one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Switzerland is home to many large gold refineries, and a significant amount of the world’s gold is refined there. This statement is correct.

Statement-II: However, Switzerland does not have the second largest gold reserves in the world. As of 2021, the countries with the largest gold reserves were the United States, Germany, and the International Monetary Fund, with Switzerland ranking much lower. This statement is incorrect.

So, based on this analysis, the correct answer is (c) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I : Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the ‘Trade and Technology Council’.
Statement-II :
The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II but is correct

Explanation:

The United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the ‘Trade and Technology Council’
The TTC serves as a forum for the United States and European Union to coordinate approaches to key global trade, economic, and technology issues and to deepen transatlantic trade and economic relations based on shared values
The TTC was established during the EU-US Summit on June 15, 2021, in Brussels
The USA and the EU claim that through this council, they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control
The TTC is a key mechanism to support enhancing transatlantic trade and increasing the use of digital tools
The TTC agreed on five key areas of cooperation: technology standards, supply chain resilience, export controls cooperation, investment screening cooperation, and promoting SME access to and use of digital technologies
Therefore, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
The TTC is not about bringing technological progress and physical productivity under their control, but rather about coordinating approaches to key global trade, economic, and technology issues and deepening transatlantic trade and economic relations based on shared values.

Inputs from IAS EXPRESS Current Affairs Notes

The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.

Statement-II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

Statement-I is incorrect. India’s share in global exports for merchandise was 1.57 percent of the total global exports in 2020

Statement-II mentions India’s Production-linked Incentive scheme, which is a government initiative to boost domestic manufacturing and exports by providing incentives to companies. Many local and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of this scheme.

Therefore, the correct option is (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Inputs from IAS EXPRESS Current Affairs Notes

1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Only one of the statements is correct.

The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a set of rules designed to ensure that countries in the European Union pursue sound public finances and coordinate their fiscal policies.
The SGP sets two hard limits on EU member states: a state’s budget deficit cannot exceed 3% of GDP and national debt cannot surpass 60% of GDP.
The SGP does not make the countries of the European Union share their infrastructure facilities or enable them to share their technologies.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Only one.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes

Consider the following countries:

1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Explanation:

The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM) was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 19 December 2018. However, not all UN member countries have adopted the GCM. As of February 2023, 152 countries have adopted the GCM.
The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are not binding on UN member countries. The GCM is a non-binding agreement that provides a framework for cooperation on migration.
The GCM does not address internal migration or internally displaced people. The GCM focuses on international migration.
Therefore, none of the statements are correct.

Inputs from IAS EXPRESS Current Affairs Notes

1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five

Explanation

Ukraine shares a land border with the following countries: Belarus, Hungary, Moldova, Poland, Romania, Russia, and Slovakia. Therefore, among the given countries, only two (Hungary and Romania) share a land border with Ukraine, which corresponds to option (a).

Inputs from Prelims Sureshots >> Geography >> Countries and Borders

With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
(d) Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.

Explanation:
Examining each of the statements in relation to the Earth’s atmosphere:

(a) The total amount of insolation (incoming solar radiation) received at the equator is indeed higher than that received at the poles due to the curvature of the Earth and its axial tilt. However, stating that it is “roughly about 10 times” is a generalized statement and the actual difference varies based on the time of year and specific atmospheric conditions.

(b) Infrared rays do not constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. The sun emits energy across a broad spectrum of wavelengths, but the majority is in the visible light spectrum, not the infrared.

(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by greenhouse gases, including water vapor, in the atmosphere. This is a key part of the greenhouse effect, which helps to warm the Earth. This statement is correct.

(d) Infrared waves are not part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves. The visible spectrum consists of the colors we can see (red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, and violet). Infrared lies just beyond the red end of the visible spectrum and is not visible to the human eye.

Given the analysis of the options, the correct answer is (c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapor in a concentrated atmosphere.

Inputs from Geography Mindmap Notes

Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.

Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

State-I is incorrect The soil in tropical rain forests is not rich in nutrients. The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly, releasing nutrients into the soil. However, the nutrients are quickly washed away by the heavy rains, leaving the soil nutrient-poor.

Statement-II is correct, as the high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.

Inputs from Geography Mindmap Notes

Statement-I:
The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statement-II :
The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

The correct answer is (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Explanation:

Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during the summer than in the winter. This statement is correct. During summer, land heats up more quickly than the ocean, causing a large temperature difference. Conversely, in the winter, land cools down more quickly than the ocean, but the effect is typically less pronounced than the contrast seen in summer due to the overall lower temperatures.
Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface. This statement is also correct. Specific heat is the amount of heat per unit mass required to raise the temperature by one degree Celsius. Water has a higher specific heat than land, meaning it requires more energy to raise its temperature, so it heats up and cools down more slowly than land.
The relationship between these two statements is that the higher specific heat of water (Statement-II) is what causes the greater temperature contrast between continents and oceans in the summer (Statement-I). So, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Inputs from Geography Mindmap Notes

With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements:

1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.

2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:

In a seismograph, P waves (Primary waves) are recorded earlier than S waves (Secondary waves). This is correct because P waves are faster than S waves and so, reach the recording instrument first.
In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. This is also correct. P waves are compressional or longitudinal waves, which means the ground particles move in the same direction as the wave. In contrast, S waves are transverse waves, meaning the ground particles move perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.

Inputs from Geography Mindmap Notes

1. None of them uses seawater.
2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
3. None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

The correct answer is (d) None.

Explanation:

It’s incorrect that none of the coal-based thermal power plants in India uses seawater. Many coastal power plants in India use seawater for cooling purposes. For instance, the Mundra Thermal Power Station in Gujarat, India, which is one of the largest coal-based power plants in the country, uses seawater for cooling.
It’s incorrect that none of the thermal power plants is set up in a water-stressed district. Some thermal power plants in India are indeed located in water-stressed regions. For example, many plants in the states of Rajasthan and Maharashtra, which frequently face water scarcity issues, rely on local water sources for their operations.
It’s incorrect that none of the coal-based thermal power plants in India is privately owned. There are several private players in the thermal power sector in India, including companies like Tata Power, Adani Power, and Reliance Power, among others. They own and operate a number of coal-based thermal power plants in the country.

Hence, none of the statements is correct.

Inputs from Geography Mindmap Notes

‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

(a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes

(b) Converting crop residues into packing material

(d) Producing biochar from thermo- chemical conversion of biomass

Correct answer is (a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes

Explanation:

The ‘Wolbachia method’ involves the use of Wolbachia, a type of bacteria that naturally lives in many insects. When introduced into mosquitoes, Wolbachia can help to reduce the transmission of harmful viruses such as Dengue, Zika, Chikungunya, and Yellow Fever. The bacteria does not harm the mosquitoes but prevents these viruses from growing inside the mosquitoes, hence reducing the mosquitoes’ ability to pass these viruses on to humans. This method has been tested in several countries as a way of controlling the spread of mosquito-borne diseases.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes >> August 2020

Consider the following activities:

1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

The correct answer is (c) All three.

Explanation:

Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively: This is a form of Enhanced Weathering. When basalt, which is rich in magnesium and calcium, weathers, it captures CO2 from the atmosphere. This process can be expedited by grinding the basalt into a fine powder, increasing its surface area and therefore its ability to capture CO2.
Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime: This is often proposed as a method of Ocean Alkalinity Enhancement. The basic idea is that by increasing the alkalinity of the ocean, we enhance its capacity to store carbon in the form of bicarbonate ions. Lime (calcium hydroxide) reacts with CO2 in seawater to form calcium carbonate, thereby removing CO2 from the seawater and, indirectly, from the atmosphere.
Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters: This is known as Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS), and is a method to prevent large amounts of CO2 from being released into the atmosphere. The CO2 is captured from emission sources, converted into a concentrated stream, and then injected deep into the Earth, often into depleted oil and gas fields or deep saline aquifer formations.

Each of these methods has its pros and cons and is at different stages of development and deployment. But all three are indeed often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration.

Inputs from Geography Mindmap Notes & Current Affairs Notes

‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?

(a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
(b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
(c) Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
(d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies

Explanation:

“Aerial metagenomics” refers to the collection and analysis of genetic material (DNA, RNA) directly from environmental samples. In the context of “aerial” metagenomics, it would specifically refer to collecting these samples from the air in a given habitat. This can include various forms of airborne life and particles such as microbial communities, fungal spores, pollen, and even fragments of plant or animal DNA that might be present in the air. The aim is to understand the biodiversity and functioning of ecosystems from the DNA up. It does not typically involve the collection of blood samples from animals, nor is it specific to avian species or the use of drones to collect samples from land and water surfaces.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes

‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?

(a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
(b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues
(c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population

Explanation:

Microsatellites, also known as short tandem repeats (STRs) or simple sequence repeats (SSRs), are small regions of repetitive DNA where a specific sequence of 2-6 base pairs is repeated typically 5-50 times. They are found throughout the genome in many organisms, including humans.

Microsatellites mutate at a high rate, which means they can rapidly change and evolve. Because of this high mutation rate, different individuals and different species often have different numbers of repeats at the same microsatellite location. These differences can be used as genetic markers to distinguish between individuals within a species (for example, in forensic DNA fingerprinting) or to study genetic relationships and evolutionary history among different species.

So, microsatellite DNA can be used for studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna (option a). It’s not typically used in stimulating stem cells (option b), promoting clonal propagation of plants (option c), or in drug trials (option d).

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes

Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

The correct statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana are:

2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.

Janani Suraksha Yojana is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Health Mission. The scheme integrates cash assistance with delivery and post-delivery care. All pregnant women delivering in government health centers are eligible for cash assistance under the JSY.

Inputs from Prelims Sureshots >> Schemes

Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:

1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant Women.

2. It runs a campaign for delayed Cord clamping at the time of child birth.

3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents

4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

The correct answer is (c).

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Providing prophylactic iron folic acid supplementation to all beneficiaries across different age groups, including pre-school children, adolescents, and pregnant women.

Statement 2 is correct: A campaign is being conducted to promote and monitor the practice of delayed clamping of the umbilical cord for at least 3 minutes (or until cord pulsations cease) in newborns at all healthcare facilities. This initiative aims to enhance the infant’s iron reserves for up to 6 months after birth. Additionally, birth attendants are encouraged to ensure early initiation of breastfeeding within 1 hour of delivery.

Statement 3 is correct: The National Deworming Day (NDD) program carries out bi-annual mass deworming for children between the ages of 1 and 19 on designated dates, specifically on February 10th and August 10th each year.

Statement 4 is correct: Efforts are being made to address non-nutritional causes of anemia in areas with high prevalence, focusing on malaria, haemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes

Consider the following actions:

1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is (a).

Carbon fibers are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. However, carbon fibers can be recycled.
There are four main types of technologies used to recycle carbon fiber waste: pyrolysis, solvolysis, mechanical recycling, and thermal recycling.
- Pyrolysis is a process that uses high heat to break down the resin that binds the carbon fibers together.
- Solvolysis is a process that uses a solvent to dissolve the resin.
- Mechanical recycling is a process that breaks down the carbon fiber composite into small pieces that can be reused.
- Thermal recycling is a process that uses heat to melt the resin and separate the carbon fibers.
Carbon fiber recycling is important because it helps to reduce the amount of waste that is produced. It also helps to conserve resources and reduce the environmental impact of manufacturing carbon fiber composites.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes >> Newsbits

1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.
2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive
3. Detection of the tilt of the smart- phone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode
In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

The correct answer is (c). Accelerometers are used in all three of the actions listed.

In the first action, accelerometers are used to detect the sudden deceleration that occurs during a car crash. This information is used to trigger the deployment of the airbags.

In the second action, accelerometers are used to detect the free fall of a laptop. This information is used to turn off the hard drive before it hits the ground, which can prevent data loss or damage to the drive.

In the third action, accelerometers are used to detect the tilt of a smartphone. This information is used to rotate the display between portrait and landscape mode.

Accelerometers are a type of sensor that measure acceleration, which is the rate of change of velocity. They are often used in electronic devices to detect motion or orientation. Accelerometers can be found in a variety of devices, including smartphones, laptops, and cars.

With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements:

1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Explanation:

Biofilters are a key component in the filtration portion of a recirculating aquaculture system (RAS). They house the nitrifying bacteria and are the primary site where biological nitrification occurs. The biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

However, biofilters do not provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

Biofilters do not increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes

Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

Objects in space: Description
1. Cepheids: Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
2. Nebulae: Stars which brighten and dim periodically
3. Pulsars: Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Explanation:

Cepheids are actually stars that brighten and dim periodically. They are not giant clouds of dust and gas in space. So, the first pair is incorrectly matched.
Nebulae are actually giant clouds of dust and gas in space. So, the second pair is incorrectly matched.
Pulsars are neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse. So, the third pair is correctly matched.
Therefore, only one of the above pairs is correctly matched. The correct answer is (a) Only one.

Inputs from Geography Mindmap Notes

(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Israel
(d) Japan

The correct answer is (d).

Japan has its own Satellite Navigation System called the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS).
It is a regional navigation satellite system that provides positioning, navigation, and timing services to Japan and the surrounding region.
QZSS is operated by the Japanese government and consists of four satellites in orbit.
Australia, Canada, and Israel do not have their own Satellite Navigation Systems.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes

Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:

1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The first statement is incorrect. Ballistic missiles follow a ballistic trajectory over most of their flight path and are only propelled for a short time after launch. Cruise missiles are self-propelled for the majority of their flight, flying in a relatively straight line and at lower altitudes due to rocket propellant.
The second statement is also incorrect. Agni-V is actually an intercontinental ballistic missile, while BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile.
So, neither of the statements given above is correct. The correct answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Inputs from Prelims Sureshots >> Missiles

1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Explanation:

Gold mining activity, specifically artisanal and small-scale gold mining (ASGM), is the largest source of anthropogenic mercury emissions worldwide. Coal-based thermal power plants also cause mercury pollution.
There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury. Exposure to mercury threatens our health, with many often irreversible toxic effects. Developing fetuses and young children are most at risk.
So, all three of the above statements are correct. The correct answer is All three.

Inputs from Environment Mindmap Notes

With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

The correct answer is (c), all three statements are correct.

Explanation:

Green hydrogen is a versatile energy carrier that can be used in a variety of applications. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion engines, blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation, or used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.

Green hydrogen is produced by the electrolysis of water, using renewable energy sources such as solar or wind power. This means that it is a carbon-free fuel, which can help to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

Green hydrogen is still a relatively new technology, but it has the potential to play a significant role in the transition to a clean energy future. It is a clean, efficient, and versatile energy carrier that can be used in a variety of applications.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes

Consider the following statements with reference to India:

1. According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006′, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹15 crore and ₹25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The first statement is incorrect. The classification of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises is defined under the MSMED Act 2006 amendment dated 01/06/2020. The Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises is based on the Investment in Plant, Machinery or Equipment values (excluding land and building) which does not exceed fifty crore rupees and Annual Turnover.

The second statement is incorrect. All Bank loans to MSMEs, for both manufacturing and service sectors, are eligible to be classified under the priority sector as per the norms provided by the RBI.
So the correct answer would be (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Reflection in IAS EXPRESS

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With reference to to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:

1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.

2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time- frame for spending it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The correct answer is (c), both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:

Central bank digital currencies (CBDCs) are digital versions of a country’s fiat currency that are issued and regulated by the central bank. CBDCs can be used to make payments without using the US dollar or the SWIFT system. For example, the digital yuan can be used to make payments in China without using the US dollar or the SWIFT system.
CBDCs can also be distributed with a condition programmed into it, such as a time-frame for spending it. For example, the digital yuan can be programmed to expire after a certain amount of time, which would encourage people to spend it rather than save it.
CBDCs are still a relatively new technology, but they have the potential to revolutionize the way we make payments. They could make it easier and faster to make payments, and they could also help to reduce the costs of making payments.

Reflection in IAS EXPRESS

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In the context of finance, the term “beta” refers to

(a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms
(b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
(c) a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market

Explanation:

In finance, the beta (β) of an investment security (i.e., a stock) is a measurement of its volatility of returns relative to the entire market.
It is used as a measure of risk and is an integral part of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM).
A company with a higher beta has greater risk and also greater expected returns.
So, the correct answer would be (d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.

1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Explanation:

The first statement is incorrect. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was initiated by NABARD and Reserve Bank of India under the guidelines of SHG-Bank Linkage Programme (SHG-BLP) in 1992.
The second statement is correct. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
The third statement is also correct. Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
So, two of the above statements are correct. The correct answer would be (b) Only two.

Inputs from Indian Economy Mindmap Notes and Current Affairs Notes

Statement-I:
India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II:
Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

India’s public healthcare system is organized into primary, secondary, and tertiary levels.
At the primary level are Sub Centres and Primary Health Centres (PHCs) that provide basic curative and preventive care.
However, the public healthcare system in India has historically been dominated by provisioning of medical care and neglected public health.
The Indian public health sector encompasses 18% of total outpatient care and 44% of total inpatient care.
The public healthcare system in rural areas has limited infrastructure and human resources.
Due to the federalized system of government in India, the areas of governance and operations of the health system have been divided between the union and the state governments.
Under India’s decentralized approach to healthcare delivery, the states are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
However, because of severe shortages of staff and supplies at government facilities, many households seek care from private providers and pay out-of-pocket.
For low-income people, the government recently launched the tax-financed National Health Protection Scheme (Ayushman Bharat-Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, or PM-JAY), which allows them to also get cashless secondary and tertiary care at private facilities.
Therefore, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Inputs from Indian Society & Social Justice Mindmap Notes & Current Affairs Notes

Statement-I:
According to the United Nations’ World Water Development Report, 2022′, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-II:
India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

The ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’ by the United Nations reveals that India annually extracts over 25% of the global groundwater withdrawal, making statement-I accurate.
However, statement-II is incorrect as approximately 89% of this extracted groundwater in India is utilized for irrigation purposes. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes

Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Explanation:

Statement-1 is correct. According to Article 355 of the Constitution of India, it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance 1.
Statement-2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not exempt the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
Statement-3 is incorrect. The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 allowed confessions made to a police officer of the rank of Superintendent of Police to be admissible as evidence in court. However, the Act was repealed in 2004 and replaced with the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, which does not allow confessions made to a police officer to be used as evidence.

Inputs from Indian Polity Mindmap Notes & Current Affairs Notes

(a) Angola
(b) Costa Rica
(c) Ecuador
(d) Somalia

Explanation:

Somalia is the country that has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages.
- It was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine.
- The famine in Somalia is a result of a catastrophic combination of conflict, high food prices, and drought.
- This has left more than 11 million people in desperate need.
- The country is currently experiencing its worst drought in nearly 40 years.
- A looming famine could leave more than 8 million people without enough food to eat by next summer.
- Somalia has seen three decades of conflict, destabilizing communities.
- Currently, it produces less than half the amount of food it did before its civil war began in the early 1990s.
- This has forced the country to become increasingly dependent on aid.
The other countries listed in the question are not currently experiencing famine.
- Angola is a country in southern Africa that has been recovering from a civil war that ended in 2002.
- Costa Rica is a country in Central America that is known for its stable democracy and high standard of living.
- Ecuador is a country in South America that is known for its natural resources and biodiversity.

Inputs from Current Affairs Notes